Question 1. (a) There are 8 points: (0,2), (0, 9), (2,0), (4,0), (5,0), (10, 3), (10, 8), O. X x3 + 5x + 4 mod 11 in Q^ll y 0 4 / (2,9) 1 10 X 2 0 / 0 3 2 X 4 0 / 0 5 0 / 0 6 8 X 7 8 X 8 a X 9 8 X 10 10 / (3,8) Table 1: S.l.a (b) What is the order of point P = (10,3)? Order k of point P is kP = 0. • Eis non-singular: -16(4a3 + 2762) = -14912 ^ 0 • P is on E - see a). • P • P = (xs,ys) = (5,0) £3 = A2 — Xi — £2 = 5 mod 11 S/3 = A(a;i - 3:3) - 2/1 = 0 mod 11 . 2F + P = (t3,j/3) = (10,8) A=^-^ = 5 mod 11 t2 - £1 £3 = A2 — £1 — xi = 10 mod 11 y:f = X(xi - S3) - yi = 8 mod 11 . 3P + P = (s3, J/3) = O A = 3ft ~ i/i = 3-8 x2 - Xi 10 - 10 Order of point P = (10,3) is 4. (c) P + P = O. When A is undefined. • X\ = x-i but yi f y2 • P, = P2 but yi=0 Question 2. (a) Factorize 3551, starting with xq = 2 and using pseudo-random function a:; + 1 = ar? + 3 mod 3551. • Pollard's ^-method version 1. First factor is 53. i .1 Xj x, gcd(xt -xj,n) 2 1 52 7 1 3 1 2707 7 1 3 2 2707 52 1 4 1 2139 7 1 4 2 2139 52 1 4 3 2139 2707 1 5 1 1636 7 1 5 2 1636 52 3 5 3 1636 2707 1 5 4 1636 2139 i 6 1 2596 7 1 6 2 2596 52 53 Table 2: 8.2.a Pollard's ^method version 1 • Pollard's />method version 2. First factor is 53. i X y f)cd( \x - y |, 3551) 1 7 1 2 52 2139 1 3 2707 2596 1 4 2139 1 150 53 Table 3: 8.2.a Pollard's p-method version 2 (b) Pollard's p - 1 method, Factorize n = 178297- B - 23, a = 2. m= Yl p — + 1 > 11 — 6 + l>6 (b) 0 points: y2 = r'J + x + 8 mod 11 has 6 points: {(3, 4), (3, 7), (8, 0), (9, 3), (9, 8), oo} (c) 14 points: y2 = T> + x + 1 mod 11 has 14 points: {(0, 1), (0, 10), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 0), (3, 3), (3, 8), (4, 5), (4, 6), (6, 5), (6, 6), (8, 2), (8, 9), oo} (d) 19 points: ft is not possible for an elliptic curve over Zn to have f9 points, because the upper bound according to Hesse's theorem is N < p + 2^/p + 1 < 11 + 6 + 1 < 18 8.7 Show that 42 | n7 - n for all integers n e N. Solution: We know that n7 — n = n(ii3 — + 1) = (n — 1)ji(ti 4 — 714> + n-\-1). Now we prove three statements 2 | n7 — n. 3 | n7 — n and 7 \ n7 — n. • 2 I n7 — n: We know that Vn : 2 | n(n +1), because n and n + 1 are consecutive numbers, therefore one of them is even. Therefore Vjt. : 2 | {n - l)n(n 4 1)("2 - ft + l)(rc2 + n + 1). ■ 3 I n7 — n: We know that Vn : 3 | (n — + 1), because n — 1, n and ?i 4 1 are consecutive numbers, therefore one of them is divisible by 3. Therefore Vn ; 3 | (n - l)n(n + l)(n2 — n + l)(n2 + n + 1) + * 7 I n7 - n: From the Format's Little Theorem we know that n6 — 1 mod 7 n7 — n mod 7 rjr — ji — 0 mod T- Therefore we show that Wt : 7 | n7 — n. Finally we use Chinese Remainder Theorem for these three statements therefore we prove Vn : 42 | n7 — n. □ 8.8 Recall the definition of a Fermat number: Fn = 22" 4 1 where n is a non-negative integer. Prove the following claims: (a) For n > 1, Fn = FG ■ ■ ■ Fn_i + 2. Solution: Wc use mathematical induction: ■ Base step: n — 1 - We know that F$ — 3 and F\ — 5 and 5 — 3 + 2 therefore we prove that /'i ~ iw - 2. • Induction step: Let be an integer > 1. The statements holds for n (Fn = Fq - ■ ■ Fn-j 4 2) and wc have to prove it for n 4- 1 (Fn+1 = F0 ■ ■ Fn 4 2). Fn = Fv-Fn.1 + 2^=> Fn -2 = F0--Fn--l. Fq - ■■ Fn + 2 = Fq - ■■ Fn—i ■ Fn + 2 = {FTt - 2)F7J 4 2 = - l) (22" + l) +2 - (22")2-l + 2 = 2^+i + 1 = Fn+1 We prove Fn = F0 ■ ■ ■ Fn_i 4 2, □ (b) For n > % the last digit of Fn is 7. Solution: Wc use mathematical induction: • Base step: n — 2 - F? — 17 so the statement is true. • Induction step: Let n be an integer > 2. The statements holds for n (Fn = 7 mod 10) and wc have to prove it for n 4 L {Fn+i = 7 mod LÜ). Fn = 7 mod 10 22?j 4 1 = 7 mod 10 ^ 22" = 6 mod 10. Fn+i = 22'L+' 4 1 = (22"Y 4 1 e 62 4 1 = 7 mod 10. Therefore wc prove Fn = 7 mod 10 (last digit is 7), □ (<:) No Format number is a perfect square. Solution: It is obvious that Fq = 3 and Fi — 5 are not perfect squares. From part (b) wo know that Vn > 2 : Fn = 7 mod 10, so if any of Fermat numbers is perfect square (k2) then fc2 — Fn = 7 mod 10. All digits (we look only on last digit of k) have this last digit for k-2: 0, 1, 4, Gt 6, 5, 6, Q, 4, 1. Therefore Vfc : ft2 ^ 7 mod 10 therefore wc prove that no Fermat number is a. perfect square. Q (d) Every Format number Fn for n > 1 has the form Gm — 1 for an integer m > 0. Solution: The equivalent definition is G | Fn 4-1. • 2 I Fn + 1: 2 I 22" +1 + 1, which is obviously true for all n > 1. • 3 I Fj; 4 1- We want to show that Vtc > 1 : 22 + 1 | 1 e 0 mod 3 which is equivalent to Vn > 1 : 22t" = 1 mod 3. 22" - (22)2""1 - 4r'~J = I21'"' = 1 mod 3 Finally wc use Chinese Remainder Theorem for them therefore wc prove Vrc > 1 : 6 | Fn 4 1. □ Question 9. To decrypt, calculate: dR = (ci, c2) wil — j/i cjj~J mod p "12 = 2/2^2 1 mod p Since the encryptor used (ci,c2) = kQ, and Q — dP,R — kP, it holds (ci,c2) = kQ — kdP — dR. Thus the (01,02) obtained during decryption is the same as in encryption, thus we simply reverse the mod-multiplication by mod-multiplying by an inverse. Inverse is calculated easily, as p is a prime.