SYNTHESE LIBRARY STUDIES IN EPISTEMOLOGY, LOGIC, METHODOLOGY, AND PHILOSOPHY OF SCIENCE Managing Editor: JAAKKO HINTTKKA, Boston University Editors: DIRK VAN DALEN, University of Utrecht, The Netherlands DONALD DAVIDSON, University of California, Berkeley THEO A.F. KUIPERS, University of Groningen, The Netherlands PATRICK SUPPES, Stanford University, California JAN WOLEŇSKI, Jagiellonian University, Krakow, Poland VOLUME 239 THE PHILOSOPHY OF MICHAEL DUMMETT Edited by BRIAN McGUINNESS Department of Philosophy and Social Science, University of Siena, Italy and GIANLUIGI OLIVER! Department of Philosophy, University of Leeds, U.K. w KLUWER ACADEMIC PUBLISHERS DORDRECHT / BOSTON / LONDON THE SOCIAL ASPECT OF LANGUAGE Donald Davidson 1. Which is conceptually primary, the idiolect or the language? If the former, the apparent absence of a social norm makes it hard to account for success in communication; if the latter, the danger is that the norm has no clear relation to practice. Michael Dummett thinks that by promoting the primacy of the idiolect I run afoul of Wittgenstein's ban on private languages; in my view Dummett, by making language primary, has misplaced the essential social element in linguistic behavior. In this paper I want to try to sort out and clarify the issues involved. "There is no such a thing as a language", I wrote in a piece called A Nice Derangement of Epitaphs.1 This is the sort of remark for which one can expect to be pilloried, and Michael did not spare me. I must think, he teases, that when Bretons, Catalans, Basques and Kurds declare that language is the soul of their culture, or dictators attempt to suppress minority languages, that Bretons, Catalans, Basques, Kurds and dictators are all suffering from the illusion that there are such things as languages to cherish or suppress. Michael realizes, of course, that what I actually said was, "There is no such a thing as a language, not if a language is anything like what many philosophers and linguists have supposed." But he won't let me get away with this, for he contends that I have offered no alternative account of what a language is.2This is a little unfair; I did delineate with some care the concept of a language to which I object. If I were right in saying no actual language is like that, it would not invalidate my argument, even if I offered no alternative view. So when Michael says "The occurrence of the phenomena that interest Davidson is incontrovertible: but how can an investigation of them lead to the conclusion that there is no such a thing as a language?" I can only 1 See [35] in [74]. Reprinted in [96]. (Page numbers will be to this reprinting.) 2See [52], in [96]. 1 B. McGuinness and G. Oliveri (eds.), The Philosophy of Michael Dummett, 1-16. © 1994 D. Davidson. Printed in the Netherlands. 2 DONALD DAVIDSON agree; it can't lead to this conclusion. But it does lead to the conclusion that there is no such thing as what some philosophers (including me) have called a language. In fact, I also did offer an alternative; of that, more later. But first, let's look at the concept of a language I opposed. It was this: in learning a language, a person acquires the ability to operate in accord with a precise and specifiable set of syntactic and semantic rules; verbal communication depends on speaker and hearer sharing such an ability, and it requires no more than this. I argued that sharing such a previously mastered ability was neither necessary nor sufficient for successful linguistic communication. I held (and hold) that the linguistic skills people typically bring to conversational occasions can and do differ considerably, but mutual understanding is achieved through the exercise of imagination, appeal to general knowledge of the world, and awareness of human interests and attitudes. Of course I did not deny that in practice people usually depend on a supply of words and syntactic devices which they have learned to employ in similar ways. What I denied was that such sharing is sufficient to explain our actual communicative achievements, and more important, I denied that even such limited sharing is necessary. It is clear that there are two theses here which must be kept separate. The first thesis is that theje is a Platonic concept of a language which is neither instantiated in practice nor (therefore) what we normally mean by the word 'language'. The second is that neither the usual concept nor the philosophical concept is very important in understanding what is essential to verbal communication. The ultimate persuasiveness, if not the correctness, of this second claim depends on presenting an alternative account of what is essential to verbal communication. Now let me try to clarify, still in a preliminary way, where I think Michael and I agree and where we don't. With respect to the first thesis, that there is no rigid set of rules to which those who share a language must conform, I think we have no serious argument; I have the impression that Michael holds, as I do, that actual linguistic practice is only loosely related to any fully and precisely specified language, with phonetics, semantics and syntax made explicit. What I say about proper names in this regard, for example, is close to what Michael says;3 he accepts that there is a good deal of flexibility in what we count as two people speaking the same language and he realizes that in understanding 3See[51],p. 189 ff.. THE SOCIAL ASPECT OF LANGUAGE 3 others we must sometimes draw on more than our previously mastered linguistic skills. Our differences here are matters of degree and emphasis. Nor do I think my failure to produce an alternative account of language is really what bothers Michael. I am happy to say speakers share a language if and only if they tend to use the same words to mean the same thing, and once this idea is properly tidied up it is only a short, uninteresting step to defining the predicate 'is a language' in a way that corresponds, as nearly as may be, with ordinary usage. What bothers Michael is not my failure to take this step (somewhere I do take it), but my failure to appreciate that the concept of a speaker meaning something by what he says depends on the notion of a shared language and not the other way around. My mistake, in his eyes, is that I take defining a language as the philosophically rather unimportant task of grouping idiolects, whereas he thinks I have no non-circular way of characterising idiolects. I shall come to this crux presently; but first I want to try to remove, or defuse, some differences that seem to me to be mainly verbal. Michael chides me for extending the usual use of the word 'interpret' and its cognates to those ordinary situations in which we understand others without conscious effort or reflection, and he hints that this reveals an underlying error or confusion on my part. I do not think I have ever conflated the (empirical) question how we actually go about understanding a speaker with the (philosophical) question what is necessary and sufficient for such understanding. I have focused on the latter question, not because I think it brings us close to the psychology of language learning and use, but because I think it brings out the philosophically important aspects of communication while the former tempts us to speculate about arcane empirical matters that neither philosophers nor psychologists know much about. So let me say (not for the first time): I do not think we normally understand what others say by consciously reflecting on the question what they mean, by appealing to some theory of interpretation, or by summoning up what we take to be the relevant evidence. We do it, much of the time, effortlessly, even automatically. We can do this because we have learned to talk pretty much as others do, and this explains why we generally understand without effort much that they say. It is significant, though, that Michael tries to saddle me with the extremely restricted meaning given the word 'interpretation' by the translators of Wittgenstein. According to this meaning, an interpretation of a word or expression is always another word or expression. This is 4 DONALD DAVIDSON quite definitely, and I should have thought clearly, not the meaning I have in mind, though confusion is possible. If I ask how someone interpreted an utterance of the sentence 'Snow is white', and am told that she interpreted it as meaning that snow is white (or as being true if and only if snow is white), my question was not, as the answer shows, what other words the hearer might have substituted for the sentence "Snow is white." I am asking how the person understood the utterance of those words. Of course I must use words to say how she understood those words, since I must use words to say anything, but my words are not offered as the interpretation; they merely help describe it. The confusion results from conflating the use of words (to describe, in this case a mental act or state), and the mention of those words (to specify the words that constitute an interpretation). I agree with Michael that "one who ... understands a sentence need not be able to say how he understands it. He does not have to be able to say it even to himself.. ."4 It would obviously have been absurd of me to have claimed, as Dum-mett implies I have claimed, that whenever we understand a speaker we translate his words into our own. Translation is no part of the transaction between speaker and hearer that I call interpretation. Where translation of a sort may be involved is in the description the philosopher gives in his language of what the hearer makes of the speaker's utterances. There is, I think, a related confusion about my use of the word 'theory'. I do, in A Nice Derangement of Epitaphs and elsewhere, allow myself to speak of the theory a hearer has when he understands a speaker. But like Humpty Dumpty after he has told Alice what he means by "There's glory for you", I explained first that this was a mere f agon de parier; here is what I said:5 To say that an explicit theory for interpreting a speaker is a model of the interpreter's linguistic competence is not to suggest that the interpreter knows any such theory. It is possible, of course, that most interpreters could be brought to acknowledge that they know some of the axioms of a theory of truth; for example, that a conjunction is true if and only if each of the conjuncts is true .. .In any case, claims about what would constitute a satisfactory theory are not ... claims about the 4 See [52], p. 464. 5See [35], p. 438. THE SOCIAL ASPECT OF LANGUAGE 5 prepositional knowledge of the interpreter ... They are rather claims about what must be said to give a satisfactory description of the competence of the interpreter. We cannot describe what an interpreter can do except by appeal to a recursive theory ... So Dummett is agreeing with me when he says, "We shall go astray ... if we make a literal equation of the mastery of a practice with the possession of theoretical knowledge of what the practice is" .6 You will notice that I do not speak of implicit knowledge here or elsewhere: the point is not that speaker or hearer has a theory, but that they speak and understand in accord with a theory — a theory that is needed only when we want to describe their abilities and performance. On a further important issue Michael and I again see eye to eye: we both insist that verbal behavior is necessarily social. In my view, and I think in his, this is not just a matter of how we use the word 'language': there couldn't be anything like a language without more than one person. Perhaps we even agree on the underlying reason, namely Wittgenstein's, that without a social environment nothing could count as misapplying words in speech. Where we part company is in how we think the social environment makes its essential contribution. Hilary Putnam has made much of 'the linguistic division of labor', and Michael has made clear that he too thinks the phenomenon is an important example of the way human communication depends on the society in which it is embedded.7 I do not doubt the existence of the phenomenon, or even its importance. But what does it show? Like Dummett, I don't think it shows, as Putnam insists, that "meanings ain't in the head"; for we can take it to be part of the meaning of an expression that its reference is to be determined by expert opinion. This would demonstrate that a speaker must believe there are experts, but not that there must be. So for the words 'elm' and 'beech' to pick out the appropriate trees there would have to be experts, but we cannot conclude that the meaningful use of these words demands a social setting. Dummett makes a similar point against Kripke's causal theory of names. More significantly from my point of .view, it is obvious that the linguistic division of labor is a device that can come into play only after the basic linguistic skills that tie words directly to things are already in 6See [52], p. 476. 7See [52], p. 475, and [44] in [50], p. 424 if.. 6 DONALD DAVIDSON place. So no matter how universal the linguistic division of labor is in practice, it cannot constitute the essential social element in language. We could get along without it. Dummett writes "Davidson would like us to believe that our whole understanding of another's speech is effected without our having to know anything" and in support of this attribution he quotes me as saying "there is no such a thing as a language to be learned or mastered". Of course even if there were no such thing to be learned it wouldn't follow that we could understand speech without knowing anything; we would have to know much more. And it is in fact a major contention of my paper that we do know, and use, much more, even in grasping just the literal meanings of a speaker's words, than our mastery of any fixed set of rules would allow us to grasp. But this is not the central misunderstanding; it springs once more from the fact that Dummett does not want to notice that what I said was that there is no such thing as what some philosophers have described as a language to be learned. We all do learn languages (in the ordinary, vague sense of language Dummett and I and everyone else have in mind). As a practical matter one can't make too much of this. I did my best to sketch how I think this works. However, my interest at this point was not to describe actual practice, but to decide what is necessary to linguistic communication. And here I thought I saw (and see) clear reasons to doubt that language, if language is taken to imply shared ways of speaking, is essential. The same doubts apply to the notion of following a rule, engaging in a practice, or conforming to conventions, if these are taken to imply such sharing. (Please note the proviso.) What is the source of these doubts? Well, starting at the small end, there is the simple fact that almost no two people share all words. Even during a conversation, each is apt to use words the other did not know before the conversation began, and so cannot belong to a practice the speakers shared in detail; here I think particularly of names and of words new to the vocabulary of one'or the other speaker. Then there are malapropisms which are nevertheless understood, slips of the tongue, and all the 'errors', as we think of them, that we would not normally commit ourselves (perhaps), but that as hearers we take in our stride: "The plane will be landing momentarily", "The phenomena is ...The data is .. .The octopi are ..." These are often part of the practice of one speaker but not of another, but communication does not suffer, though affection or admiration may wither. We have no trouble following the THE SOCIAL ASPECT OF LANGUAGE 7 conversation of the child who says "He wented to the store" and who generally forms the past tense according to a rule which is not part of 'the language'. Actual cases grow rarer as they grow more extreme, but more extreme cases certainly exist. People who speak dialects of what we call the same language may not at first be able to make anything of what the other says; after they learn to understand each other, each may continue to speak in his own way, just as I have learned to answer letters in German, Spanish and French in English. Someone with a unique and serious speech defect may be understood by those around him. Now to make a leap. There seems to me to be no reason, in theory at least, why speakers who understand each other ever need to speak, or to have spoken, as anyone else speaks, much less as each other speaks. Of course, the concept of 'same' (as in 'speak in the same way', or 'speak the same language') that we are depending on so heavily is already that philosophically teasing notion of similarity. I assume that two speakers couldn't understand each other if each couldn't (pretty well) say in his way what the other says in his. If we employ the translation manual relating the two ways of speaking to define what we mean by speaking in the same way, we can after all salvage something of the claim that communication requires a shared practice. But this is not what anyone would call sharing a language, nor what anyone has meant by a common practice or a shared set of rules or conventions. It is a question how Dummett might specify in a non circular way how speakers of 'the same language' must resemble one another. As Warren Goldfarb emphasizes (in discussing Kripke's 'sceptical' solution to Wittgenstein's problem), "... any problem we find in rule following will arise even with respect to what counts as the same", and he quotes Wittgenstein,8 If you have to have an intuition in order to develop the series 1,2,3,4,... then you must also have one to develop the series 2,2,2,... (Philosophical Investigations §214.) I can think of three strategies for dealing with my doubts: one can claim that I have ignored the fact that speakers of a language are responsible to a social norm even if they do not hold to it; one can concede that communication without shared practices may be theoretically possible, but argue that this is pointless speculation given that it never occurs in a pure form and probably couldn't; and, finally, it may be urged that no alternative answer to Wittgenstein's query has been offered, the query "See [72], p. 485. 8 DONALD DAVIDSON being: what is the difference between using words correctly and merely thinking that one is using them correctly? I will take up these three responses in turn. According to Dummett.9 Figures of speech and other deliberately non-standard uses apart, a speaker holds himself responsible to the accepted meanings of words and expressions in the language or dialect he purports to be speaking; his willingness to withdraw or correct what he has said when made aware of a mistake about the meaning of the word in the common language therefore distinguishes erroneous uses from intentionally deviant ones. Of course it is easy to agree that people speak as they think others do except when they don't. And if dialects can be divided as finely as need be, I can have no objections to much of the spirit of Michael's claim. The blacks in Brooklyn don't want to speak as whites do, and some individuals (James Joyce), though they want to be understood, don't want to talk as anyone else does. But the crux is the idea of obligation to the norm constituted by the 'accepted' meanings of words, for it is in omitting this idea that I have apparently left out something essential to characterising the kind of meaning involved in verbal communication. I don't see how. Suppose someone learns to talk as others do, but feels no obligation whatever to do so. For this speaker obligation doesn't enter into it. We ask why she talks as others do. "I don't do it because I think I should", she replies, "I just do talk that way. I don't think I have an obligation to walk upright, it just comes naturally." If what she says is true would she not be speaking a language, or would she cease to be intelligible? In other words, what magic ingredient does holding oneself responsible to the usual way of speaking add to the usual way of speaking? Perhaps the answer will be that the sense of obligation only reveals itself when one is made aware of'a mistake about the meaning of a word in the common language, and one willingly corrects oneself. Of course if one thinks she is wrong about what a word means to others, she will change her mind, just as she would about anything else; will and obligation have nothing to do with it. So it must be the public gesture that counts. And no doubt most of us make such gestures willingly under appropriate circumstances. My wife is embarrassed because I have in 9 See [52], p. 462. THE SOCIAL ASPECT OF LANGUAGE 9 my vocabulary the word (non-word?) 'as-cer'tainable.' I'm embarrassed, too, to learn that my word is not part of the English language. I'll try, probably unsuccessfully, to change my ways. But why? Well, 1 don't want people to think 1 don't know that others say 'as-cer-tain'able' where I say 'as-cer'tain-able'. Who wants to label himself as ignorant? I'm too old to be embarrassed much by not being able to spell, and it amuses my students; but I'd spell things right if I could. These pressures are social and they are very real. They do not, however, as far as I can divine, have anything to do with meaning or communication. Using a word in a non-standard way out of ignorance may be a faux pas in the same way that using the wrong fork at a dinner party is, and it has as little to do with communication as using the wrong fork has to do with nourishing oneself, given that the word is understood and the fork works. Of course, I don't mean that there is no reason why we are taught, and why we learn, to speak more or less as others around us do. Nothing could be more obvious: we want to be understood and others have an interest in understanding us; ease of communication is vastly promoted by such sharing. Most of us do not have the time or ability to learn very many different languages. In the case of our children, or certain poets and writers, we must or do make exceptions, but in general our tolerance of strongly deviant idiolects is limited by clear practical considerations. None of this creates a free-standing obligation, however. Any obligation we owe to conformity is contingent on the desire to be understood. If we can make ourselves understood while deviating from the social norm, any further obligation has nothing to do with meaning or successful communication. As Aristotle says, "It would be absurd to wish good for wine; if one wishes it at all, it is that the wine may keep, so that we may have it for ourselves".10 It is absurd to be obligated to a language; so far as the point of language is concerned, our only Obligation, if that is the word, is to speak in such a way as to accomplish our purpose by being understood as we expect and intend. It is an accident, though a likely one, if this requires that we speak as others in our community do. "In employing words of the English language", writes Dummett, "we have to be held responsible to their socially accepted use, on pain of failing to communicate".11 But if the threat of failure to communicate is the reason for conforming, responsibility is irrelevant: Michael might less 10See [1], 1155 B 29-31. uSee[44],p. 429. lü DONALD DAVIDSON tendentiously have written, "If we want to communicate, we should use words in their socially accepted way". The residual problem with this is that it is false in all those cases when we will be better understood if we deviate from the 'socially accepted' use. If we want to be understood, all we need to worry about is how our actual audience will take our words. The correct advice is Lord Chesterfield's: "Speak the language of the company you are in; and speak it purely, and unlarded with any other". What, after all, is the point of speaking in accord with 'accepted usage' to a company that we know will understand us only if we depart from accepted usage? I don't say there couldn't be a point in doing this, but what would it have to do with communication? Now to address the contention that it is pointless to speculate on the remote possibility of there being speakers who, though they express themselves in distinct idiolects, understand one another. I have agreed that the possibility is in practice restricted to special cases, and I have stressed both the obvious utility of the large degrees of overlap in verbal performance we find in groups that live and talk together, and the inevitability that conformity will be learned and encouraged. The theoretical possibility of communication without shared practices remains philosophically important because it shows that such sharing cannot be an essential constituent in meaning and communication. If I am right, then important claims by Tyler Bürge, Saul Kripke and perhaps Wittgenstein and Dummett must be false, for certainly the first two have insisted that speaking in the 'socially accepted' way is essential to verbal communication, and if this is not Dummett's view it is obscure what argument he thinks he has with me. I'd better leave Wittgenstein out of this; I'll just say Kripkenstein. It also seems to me important to emphasize that much successful communing goes on that does not depend on previously learned common practices, for recognizing this helps us appreciate the extent to which understanding, even of the literal meaning of a speaker's utterances, depends on shared general information and familiarity with non-linguistic institutions (a 'way of life'). I now turn to the third challenge the idiolect must face. The challenge is to draw the distinction Wittgenstein has made central to the study of meaning, the distinction between using words correctly and merely thinking one is using them correctly, without appeal to the test of common usage. This is the hardest, and the most important, challenge, and I agree with Michael if he believes the challenge can be met only by ■:-r.-,ri